This seems a very complicated way of looking at it. The way I think
of it is that IIm6 is just a 1st inversion of a VII chord and a VII
is just a rootless 9th.
Ian Dilley
>
>
> Reed:
> > I'm not sure what you are talking about here.
>
> Sorry, I'll try to explain:
> In Stella, there is a Ab9 that is really a Ebm6, making a plagal cadence, as
> you have explained previously.
> I've seen lots of reharmonisations where a V7 or a bII7 is substituted by a
> m6 chord a 4th below:
> G7(9) by Dm6
> G7(b9,b13)=Db7(9) by Abm6
> So my question is: is there some justification for this, or it just happens
> these modes have the same notes (naturally, as both come from melodic minor
> scale) and can be interchanged? :
>
> Lidian b7: 1 9 3 #11 5 13 b7
> Melodic: 11 5 6 7 1 9 b3
>
> Pedro
>
>